If you are looking for free EPFO test series then in this article we are going t provide you with the 15 free mock tests for UPSC EPFO.
Also check,
- 145+ Essay for Civil Servises Examination
- International Chronology Book PDF
- UPSC IQ monthly Magazine
- Speedy Current Affairs Magazine
The answer to this Mock Test is given below the pdf. If Anyone gets into trouble with these questions, comment below.
UPSC EPFO AO/EO Mock Test 1 Answer
UPSC EPFO Mock test 1 Questions
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MOCK: 1
UPSC EPFO Mock test 1PART: A
Q1. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘The regular DISCORD between the management and the staff led to unrest on the campus.’?
A. Unanimity
B. Contention
C. Harmony
D. Betrayal
Q2. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘His CANDID opinions have won him many friends.’?
A. Kind
B. Courteous
C. Generous
D. Frank
Q3. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘He DECRIED the practice of corruption and favouritism in public life’?
A. Praised
B. Denounced
C. Worried
D. Pondered
Q4. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context. The story you have just told is
INCREDIBLE.
A. Unconvincing
B. Fantastic
C. Probable
D. Believable
Q5. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘My first lecture in the classroom was a FIASCO.’?
A. Success
B. Failure
C. Fun
D. Disaster
Q6. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘Unlike his brother, he is AFFABLE.’?
A. Reserved
B. Gullible
C. Irritable
D. Lovable
Q7. SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
From the last five days it has been raining torrentially.
A. Since the last
B. For the last
C. Since last
D. No improvement
Q8. SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his dishonesty.
A. as for
B. but because
C. but due to
D. No improvement
Q9. SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
He preferred death rather than imprisonment.
A. for
B. to
C. than
D. No improvement
Q10.SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
Had she been hungry, she would have devoured the whole lot of it.
A. Unless she had been hungry
B. However, she had been hungry
C. As if she had been hungry
D. No improvement
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q11. Which one of the following is the correct word(s) (most appropriate word(s)) to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with
……………….. .’?
A. prickly heat
B. perspiration
C. sores
D. fatigue
Q12. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘The doctor advised him to eat well and __________weight’?
A. put in
B. put up
C. put on
D. put away
Q13. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘The students ____________________ their teacher 20 years after they left the school’?
A. called on
B. called out
C. called in
D. called for
Q14.ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
P: He sat glancing occasionally
Q: peering through the window
R: at the figure of the old woman S: until he was chilled with the cold the proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ
B. QRPS
C. SPRQ
D. PRSQ
Q15. Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase ‘Something that is needle shaped’?
A. Sharpened
B. Acerose
C. Steep
D. Dumsy
Q16. Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase ‘One who studies history relating to the development of human race from old stone ages?
A. Historian
B. Museologist
C. Anthropologist
D. Etymologist
Q17. Which one of the following is the appropriate question tag in the sentence ‘There cannot be any such practice in administration _________________’?
A. Can’t there be?
B. Can there be?
C. Won’t there be?
D. Is there be?
Q18.Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘The importance of preserving cinema as an art and historical document have been recognized all over the world,’ has an error?
A. The importance of preserving
B. cinema as an art
C. and historical document D. have been recognized all over the world
Q19. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘Increased commercial activity and the consequents growth of money economy led to a proliferation of arts and crafts,’ has an error?
A. Increased commercial activity
B. and the consequents growth of
C. money economy led
D. to a proliferation of arts and crafts
Q20. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence ‘It was indeed PIQUANT to see the war-torn areas?
A. Insipid
B. Stinging
C. Pungent
D. Distressing
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
UPSC EPFO Mock test 1 PART: B
Q21. Which of the following were the main influences on Vasudeo Balwant Phadke?
1. Experience of the Deccan famine of 1876-77.
2. Hindu revivalism.
3. Theory of Drain of Wealth.
4. Reformist idea of Phule. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Q22. Who among the following attended the International Socialist Congress at Stuttgart in August 1907?
A. Madam Cama and Sardarsinhji Ravaji Rana
B. Shayamji Krishna Varma and Madam Cama
C. Taraknath Das and Sardarsinhji Ravaji Rana
D. Madam Cama and Taraknath Das
Q23. Which one of the following is the famous novel written in 1869 by Nazir Ahmad Dehlvi?
A. Twilight in Delhi
B. Mirat-ul-Uroos
C. Bahishti Zewar
D. City of Djinns
Q24. Which one of the following statements about ‘Cripps Mission’ is NOT correct?
A. In March 1942, Cripps persuaded War Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration.
B. Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission.
C. The mission offered Dominion status after the war.
D. The mission offered formation of constitution making body after the war.
Q25. During the tenure of which Viceroy imperial Agricultural Department was created and Agricultural Institute at Pusa was founded?
A. Lord Dufferin
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Hardinge
Q26.Which of the following represents the main phases of the Quit India Movement?
1. Strikes, boycotts, and picketing in urban centres
2. Widespread attacks in rural areas on the many symbols and means of colonial rule and authority, e.g., Railways, telegraph lines, and Government buildings
3. Formation of Home Rule leagues 4. The ‘Karnataka method’ Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4 only
Q27. Who founded ‘Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha’ in 1924?
A. Madan Mohan Malaviya
B. Govind Vallabh Pant
C. Dr. S.K. Bole
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q28. Which one of the following statements about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct?
A. It broke out at Poona and Ahmadnagar.
B. It was directed against moneylenders.
C. It was supported by the intelligentsia of Bengal.
D. It was directed against the petty Zamindars and exemployees of the planters.
Q29. Who founded Bharat Stree Mahamandal, to promote female education?
A. Mrs. Ramabai Ranade
B. Saraladevi Chaudhurani
C. Sister Subbalakhsmi
D. Maniben Kara
Q30.The Act Prohibiting Child Marriages was passed in 1891 due to the efforts of:
A. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar and Jyotiba Phule
B. Mahadev Govind Ranade and Jyotiba Phule
C. Keshab Chandra Sen and Behramji Malabari
D. Keshab Chandra Sen and Mahadev Govind Ranade
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q31. In which year the All-India Women’s Conference (AIWC) held their first session?
A. 1922
B. 1946
C. 1927
D. 1938
Q32. Which of the following statements about ‘Barnaparichay’, a mid-19th century Bengali text is/are correct?
1. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy.
2. It was the most widely used Bengali primer of the time. Select correct answer using code given below.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q33. In 1893, there occurred a split in the Arya Samaj on the issues of:
1. Meat-eating vs vegetarianism.
2. Caste system and widow remarriage.
3. Shuddhi of converts.
4. Anglicised vs Sanskrit-based education.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. Only 1
Q34.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List I: (Personality)
(i) BR Ambedkar
(ii) Sikandar Hayat Khan
(iii) Fazlul Huq
(iv) Khaliquzzaman
List II: (Political Party)
1. Pakistan Muslim League
2. Krishak Praja Party
3. Unionist Party
4. Independent Labour Party
Code: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
B. i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
C. i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
D. i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
Q35. Which of the following movement has mass base/following of ‘Bargadars’ community?
A. Bardoli Satyagraha
B. Tebhaga
C. Satyashodhak Samaj
D. Ulgulan
Q36. Which of the following statement is false about Receipt and Payment Account?
A. It is prepared on Cash Basis of Accounting.
B. It records both revenue and capital nature transactions.
C. It records cash transactions held in the current year, irrespective of the fact that they relate to previous year or next year.
D. The credit balance of Receipt and Payment account denotes Surplus.
Q37.On reissue of forfeited shares, the amount of discount on reissued shares them cannot be more than:
A. Paid up amount on forfeited shares
B. Called up amount on forfeited shares
C. Unpaid amount on forfeited shares
D. Face Value of the forfeited shares
Q38. A trader purchased goods for Rs. 25,00,000, of these 70% of goods were sold during the year. At the end of 31st December 2009, the market value of such goods were Rs.5,00,000. But the trader recorded in his books for Rs.7,50,000. Which of the following concept is violated?
A. Money measurement
B. Conservatism
C. Consistency
D. Historical Cost
Q39. Calculate the amount of Opening Stock from the following information: Sales = Rs. 1,00,000
Gross Profit = 20% on Sales
Net Purchases = Rs. 60,000
Closing Stock = Rs. 25,000
A. Rs. 15,000
B. Rs. 45,000
C. Rs. 60,000
D. Rs. 35,000
Q40. In case of Joint Venture Accounting, Unsold inventories of Rs. 63,000 is taken by a Venturer at Rs. 84,000, then Joint Venture Account will be credited by:
A. Rs. 21,000
B. Rs. 84,000
C. Rs. 63,000
D. Zero
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q41.Consider the following statements:
1. Both Provisions and Reserves can be used to pay dividend to the shareholders.
2. Both Provisions and Reserves are charge against profits. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Q42. “The items remaining in inventory at the end of the period are those most recently purchased or produced”, is the consequence of using which method of Inventory Valuation?
A. Weighted Average Method
B. LIFO
C. Adjusted Selling Price Method
D. FIFO
Q43. Which of the following will NOT result in creation of Secret Reserves?
A. Charging higher Depreciation on Fixed Assets than required
B. Showing Contingent Liabilities as Actual Liabilities
C. Overvaluation of Closing Stock
D. Charging Capital Expenditure to Profit and Loss Account
Q44. Which of the following is false about Bills of Exchange?
A. Bills of Exchange requires acceptance from the debtor to become a valid bill.
B. Bills of Exchange are negotiable instruments.
C. Bills of Exchange can be discounted from Bank before maturity. D. None of the above
Q45.Under Stock and Debtors Method, Branch Adjustment Account is a:
A. Real Account
B. Artificial Personal Account
C. Nominal Account
D. Representative Personal Account
Q46. In the context of Accounting Standards, the term NFRA stands for:
A. National Federation for Rationalized Accounting
B. National Fiscal Regulators Association
C. National Financial Reporting Authority
D. National Fund Resource Application
Q47. Which of the following account is debited in the books of Consignor, for commission payable to the consignee?
A. Closing Stock Account
B. Consignment Account
C. Consignor Personal Account
D. Consignee Personal Account
Q48. While preparing Cash Flow Statement, “Cash payment for self-constructed fixed assets”, is classified under:
A. Precautionary Activity
B. Operating Activity
C. Financing Activity
D. Investing Activity
Q49. Which Financial Statement represents the accounting equation? Assets = Liability + Owner’s
Equity
A. Income Statement
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Balance Sheet
D. Both B and C
Q50. “Employee State Insurance Premium Paid Rs. 80,000”, is classified in Accounting as:
A. Revenue Expenditure
B. Capital Expenditure
C. Personal Expenditure of Proprietor
D. Social Expenditure
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q51. Consider the following statements:
1. Public Gambling Act of 1867 governs betting and gambling in India.
2. Justice Lodha committee has recommended the legalisation of betting in Cricket.
3. ‘Dream11’ and ‘My11Circle’ Fantasy Cricket App are both illegal in India. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1
D. Only 2
Q52. The Proposed orbiter mission ‘Shukrayaan’ by The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is related to which planet?
A. Mars
B. Saturn
C. Jupiter
D. Venus
Q53.Consider the following statements regarding ‘Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge’ launched across 243 Cities:
1. The Challenge is launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. It is launched to mechanize all sewer and septic tank cleaning operations by 30th April 2025 and end manual scavenging by 2025. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Q54. Consider the following statements regarding POSHAN Abhiyaan, or National Nutrition Mission: 1. The plan is attainment of malnutrition free India by 2030. 2. The major part of financing the POSHAN Abhiyaan is funded by World Health Organisation.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Q55. Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals:
1. SDGs are collection of 11 interlinked global goals designed to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all”.
2. The SDGs were set in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly.
3. The SDGs are intended to be achieved by the year 2025. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 and 2
Q56. Which protocol provides e-mail facility among different hosts?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. TELNET D. SNMP
Q57. _________ is a network topology where each individual piece of a network is attached to a central node (often called a hub or switch).
A. Star topology
B. Bus topology
C. Mesh topology
D. Ring topology
Q58. Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of ___ Layer.
A. Physical Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Datalink Layer
Q59. What is clickjacking?
A. A device that sends and receives data at every click in a bit second
B. A device which does/counts clicks on internet C. A malicious technique of tricking Web users into revealing confidential information D. A digital process that is used to display an image on mobiles
Q60. USB stands for:
A. Universal Serial Bus
B. Universal Sequential Bus
C. Unidentified Serial Bus
D. Unique Sequential Bus
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q61.Which one of the following statements regarding insulin hormone is correct?
A. Insulin is a protein hormone which is not produced in human body.
B. Insulin is a steroid hormone which is produced in human body.
C. Insulin is a cholesterol-driven hormone given to human.
D. Insulin is a protein hormone which is produced in human body.
Q62. Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate?
A. Minamata disease and Osteoporosis
B. Osteoporosis and Blue Baby Syndrome
C. Minamata disease and Blue Baby Syndrome
D. Osteoporosis and Minamata disease
Q63. Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves?
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Copper
Q64. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The Earth’s magnetic field is due to the motion of metals like iron and nickel in the core of the Earth
B. The magnetic field lines of force are widely separated near the poles of a magnet but these lines come closer to one another at other places
C. If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density decreases
D. The magnetic lines of force come closer to one another near the poles of a magnet but they are widely separated at other places
Q65. Which one of the following is the chemical name of heavy water?
A. Hydrogen oxide
B. Deuterium dioxide
C. Deuterium oxide
D. Heavy hydrogen oxide
Q66. The function of which the following hormone is to retain Salt?
A. Aldosterone
B. Oestrogen
C. Melatonin
D. Progesterone
Q67. The weight of any object is felt due to gravity of Earth. When any object goes inside the Earth or above the Earth, weight decreases. It will weigh minimum when an object is placed at:
A. The Equator and Moon
B. North Pole and Saturn C. South Pole and 1 Km beneath the Earth
D. Centre of Earth and in an orbiting satellite
Q68. Which one of the following statements about transport mechanism in plants is correct?
A. Diffusion of ions and small molecules across cell membrane requires energy.
B. Active transport of ions and small molecules across cell membrane against concentration gradient requires energy.
C. Cells conserve energy and no energy is required for transport of ions and small molecules against concentration gradient.
D. Cells do not transport ions across their membrane as these are charged molecules.
Q69. Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct?
A. It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower and high temperatures.
B. It produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower and high temperatures.
C. It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature and nitrogen oxides at high temperature.
D. It produces large quantity of nitrogen oxides at lower temperature and carbon monoxide at high temperature.
Q70. Which one of the following statements regarding digestion is correct?
A. Fat present in the food is digested by trypsin and chymotrypsin.
B. Starch of food is digested by lipases.
C. Fat of food is digested by lipases.
D. Nucleic acid is digested by amylases.
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q71.Under the provision of ‘The Code on Wages, 2019’, for payment of wages, Where the employee has been removed from service, the wages payable to him shall be paid within:
A. Seven working days of his removal
B. Three working days of his removal
C. One working days of his removal
D. Two working days of his removal
Q72. According to Walton and McKersie, ‘Behavioural Theory of Labour Negotiation’, which of the following Process of Negotiation is based on the statement ‘If one party gains, the other party loses’?
A. Distributive Bargaining
B. Attitudinal Structuring
C. Integrative Bargaining
D. Intra-Organisational Bargaining
Q73. ‘Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana’ is primarily a:
A. Health Insurance Scheme
B. Pension Scheme
C. Employment assurance Scheme
D. Women Entrepreneur Empowerment Scheme
Q74.The statement emphasising the Lack of Education in workers that, “In India nearly the whole mass of industrial labour is illiterate, a state of affairs which is unknown in any other country of industrial importance. It is almost impossible to over- estimate the consequences of this disability, which are obvious in wages, in health, in productivity, in organisation and in several other directions.” was reported in:
A. Declaration of Philadelphia, 1944 (ILO)
B. 1st National Commission on Labour, 1969
C. Royal Commission on Labour, 1931
D. Sustainable Development Goals, 2030.
Q75. As per The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, in which of the following entertainment industry, child is not permitted to work under any condition:
A. Advertisements
B. Television Serials
C. Circus D. Films
Q76. Which of the following committee in 1977 advocated Three-Tier participation of workers at corporate, plant & shop floor level and optional ownership rights to the workers as means of articipation?
A. Verma Committee
B. Giri Committee
C. Jagjivan Ram Committee
D. Gangwar Committee
Q77.Arrange the following events of International Labour Organisation in chronological order: 1. International Labour Organisation becoming specialised agency of newly formed United Nations.
2. Global Commission on the Future of Work.
3. Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work.
4. Adoption of “fundamental” Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (Convention no. 182).
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 1,2,4,3
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 1,3,4,2
Q78. Following are the features of which type of Strike:
1. Workers present themselves at the place of employment. 2. Workers refuse to Work.
3. Workers refuse to leave the premises until a settlement of dispute is reached.
4. Workers often prevent the entry of non-strikers in the premises.
A. Sit Down Strike
B. Gherao
C. Solidarity Action
D. Whipshaw Strike
Q79. The Wage Limit of workers under ‘Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)’ introduced by Ministry of Labour and Employment is:
A. Rs. 15,000 per month
B. Rs. 24,000 per month
C. Rs. 20,000 per month
D. There is no wage limit under this scheme
Q80.Which of the following describes the purpose “Public Relation Theory” of labour welfare?
A. To create good image in the minds of workers and advertisement through Welfare activities.
B. To appease the educated working class which stands for their rights.
C. Labour Welfare provisions as a means to increasing the efficiency of workers.
D. Labour Welfare programmes as Legal Responsibility of employer.
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q81. What is the minimum number of days a woman employee must have actually worked under an employer in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of expected delivery for becoming eligible for maternity benefit under the ‘The Code on Social Security, 2020?
A. Ninety Days
B. Eighty Days
C. One Hundred and Twenty Days
D. Sixty Days
Q82. Which of the following convention of International Labour Organisation relates to protection of “Domestic Workers”?
A. International Labour Organisation Convention No. 189
B. International Labour Organisation Convention No. 190
C. International Labour Organisation Convention No. 182
D. International Labour Organisation Convention No. 186
Q83.A labour reform initiative, ‘The Pradhan Mantri Paridhan Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMPRPY)’ is applicable for:
A. Mining Industry
B. Textile (Apparel) Sector
C. Domestic (Household) Workers
D. Industries with less than 250 workers
Q84. Which of the following Joint Council is at highest level of Workers Participation in Management by Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)?
A. Joint Works Council
B. Joint Plant Council
C. Joint Consultative Council of Management
D. Joint Departmental Council
Q85. ‘PENCIL’ portal has been introduced by Ministry of Labour and Employment, as a platform for effective enforcement for:
A. No child labors
B. Compulsory Registration of Construction Workers
C. Minimum Wages based on Cost-of-Living Index D. Creches Facility in every establishment where more than 10 women are employed.
Q86. Which article of the Indian Constitution secures the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement?
A. Article 41, Directive Principle of State Policy
B. Article 24, Fundamental Rights
C. Article 39 (e), Directive Principle of State Policy
D. Article 16, Fundamental Rights
Q87.Which of the following officer are appointed under The Industrial Relation Code, 2020, for mediating in and promoting the settlement of industrial disputes?
A. Bargaining Officers
B. Audit Officers
C. Certifying Officers
D. Conciliation Officers
Q88. Which of the following concept of Labour is emphasised in the statement, ‘Labour is affected by the laws of demand and supply in regard to wages.’?
A. Machine Concept of Labour
B. Commodity Concept of Labour
C. Citizen Concept of Labour
D. Goodwill Concept of Labour
Q89. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in context of ‘Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana’? 1. The target population of the scheme are workers working in Organised Sector.
2. The entry age of enrolment under the scheme is 18-60 years. 3. Income Tax Payers are not eligible under this scheme.
A. Only 2 and 3
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 1 and 2
Q90. “Arrangement where employers make regular deductions from employees’ wages and pay to the Union directly” is called:
A. Dues Checkoff Arrangement
B. Closed Shop Arrangement
C. Yellow Dog Contract
D. Feather Breeding Arrangement
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q91.Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
A. Repayment of public debt
B. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
C. Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
D. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Q92.TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by:
A. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
B. United Nations Organization (UNO)
C. World Trade Organization (WTO)
D. World Bank (WB)
Q93. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?
A. The Reserve Bank of India
B. The Department of Economic Affairs
C. The Labour Bureau
D. The Department of Personnel and Training
Q94. Kinked demand curve of the Oligopoly indicates:
- If one firm decreases price other firms also decreases the price
- II) If one firm increases price other firms also increases the price
- III) If one firm decreases the price other firms does not decrease the price.
- IV) If one firm increases the price other firms does not increase the price.
A. Only I
B. II and IV
C. I and IV
D. II and III
Q95. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
A. The International Monetary Fund
B. The United Nations Development Programmed
C. The World Economic Forum
D. The World Bank
Q96. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by:
1) An increase in the money supply
2) A decrease in the aggregate level of output
3) An increase in the effective demand Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q97.The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of:
A. Labour-augmenting technological progress
B. Capital-augmenting technological progress
C. Capital-reducing technological progress
D. All of the above
Q98. In the theory of demographic transition in the last stage:
A. Birth rate rise, death rate rises
B. Birth rate rise, death rate falls
C. Birth rate falls, death rate rises
D. Birth rate falls, death rate falls
Q99. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of different stages a budget has to go through in the Parliament?
1. Presentation of the Budget
2. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
3. Passing of Finance Bill
4. Passing of Appropriation Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
B. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
C. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
D. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
Q100.Which of the following is/are true regarding Urban Local Bodies in India?
1. The Constitution 74th Amendment Act envisages three types of urban local bodies, namely Municipal Corporation, Municipality and City Council
2. Municipal Corporations are established in cities with population greater than 1 million
3. Bombay and Calcutta Corporations were the first Municipal Corporations that were established during British time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021
Q101. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the office of Governor in India?
1. One Governor can act as Governor of more than one State
2. The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, remission of punishment to persons convicted under the State Law
3. The Governor is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Minister of the respective State Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Q102. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union territory 4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 4
D. 3 & 4
Q103. Which one of the following judgments declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India?
A. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
B. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
C. Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
D. Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Government of India
Q104. The Theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between:
A. Central and State Governments
B. Different branches of Government
C. The polity and the economy
D. State and Local Governments
Q105. Which of the following committee/ committees submitted reports on Electoral reforms?
1. Dinesh Goswami Committee
2. Tarkunde Committee
3. Indrajit Gupta Committee
4. Balwantrai Mehta Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Q106. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour?
A. 8:5
B. 5:8
C. 4:5
D. 1:2
Q107. Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?
A. 1:3
B. 2:3
C. 3:2
D. 5:3
Q108. At what time between 2 o’clock and 3 o’clock will the hour and minute hands of a clock be 12 minutes division apart?
A. 12 minutes past 2 o’clock
B. 18 minutes past 2 o’clock
C. 24 minutes past 2 o’clock
D. 30 minutes past 2 o’clock
Q119. What is ‘X’ in the following table?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Q120. If the two dice each with six faces marked 1 to 6 are thrown, what is the probability that the sum of the two outcomes is 6?
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 5/36
D. 7/36
UPSC EPFO Free Mock Test 1 2021